Showing posts with label ALS A&E Reviewer ENGLISH Secondary. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ALS A&E Reviewer ENGLISH Secondary. Show all posts

Wednesday, August 12, 2020

Video 56 - ALS REVIEWER SECONDARY for AERT and A&E - ENGLISH - Reading C...





For Item 18 – 20. Read the cooking procedures below and answer the questions that follow. (From https://www.filipinorecipesite.com)



Cooking Procedures:

1. In a medium saucepan, heat oil over medium heat. Sauté ginger and garlic until fragrant. Add onions, stir-fry until softened and translucent.

2. Add chicken cuts. Cook for 3 to 5 minutes until chicken colors slightly. Season with patis and salt.

3. Pour in water (or rice water, if using). Bring to a boil. Lower the heat and let it simmer until chicken is half-done. Add in sayote (or papaya or potatoes, if using). Continue simmering until chicken and vegetable are tender. Correct seasonings and then add sili leaves or malunggay or substitute. Stir to combine until well blended. Remove from heat.

4. Let stand for a few minutes to cook the green vegetables. Transfer to a serving dish and serve hot.



18. What do you think is the recipe described above?

A. Chicken Tinola

B. Chicken Adobo

C. Chicken Inasal

D. Chicken Curry



19. To simmer is to __________.

A. cook in low heat without boiling

B. stir-fry

C. steam

D. stir while cooking



20. “Sauté ginger and garlic ” means ___________.

A. To mix rapidly to make a mixture.

B. To fry in a small amount of hot fat.

C. To brown quickly by intense heat.

D. To immerse in rapidly boiling water.



For the correct answers and other Reading Comprehension practice test, please watch the video above, and subscribe to future reviewers.

Thursday, February 22, 2018

REVIEWER ALS A&E - ENGLISH - SECONDARY

Learning Strand 1 – Communication Skills - ENGLISH

1. I will go to the concert, but ________ you go as well.
  A. ONLY IF                     B. unless      C. only but    D. as long as

2. I brought along a sandwich, ________ I get hungry.
  A. therefore          B. IN CASE   C. only if       D. because
 
3. ________ she calls me, I feel very happy.
  A. Therefore         B. So that     C. WHENEVER       D. Wherever

4. Take this photo, ________ you can remember me.
 A. while                  B. SO THAT  C. although             D. as long as

5. Myrna will not talk to him ________ he apologizes for what he did.
  A. UNTIL              B. because             C. while        D. only if

6. Luisa will find her dog, ________ it is.
  A. where               B. whenever            C. therefore  D. WHEREVER

7. The principal spoke ________ she knew what she was talking about, but she didn't.
  A. until                  B. although             C. AS IF       D. and

8. ________ my parents arrived, we had to end the party.
  A. As long as        B. ONCE                C. Although   D. Because

9. Watering and feeding new plants is necessary for growth, ______ too much water or fertilizer can kill them.
A. BUT    B. however   C. and    D. because

10. If my husband _____here, he will surely help you.
A. is              B. was          C. WERE      D. will be

11. The teacher together with the students ______ time to relax.
A. NEEDS     B. need         C. needed     D. have needed

12. His bed and breakfast business _____ flourishing.
A. were         B. IS             C. have         D. had

13. The time is running out. Everybody should act ______.
A. quicker     B.  more quick         C. QUICKLY           D. quickest.

14. Between you and me, I think Pamela danced __________ than Joanna.
A. gracefully  B. more graceful     C. the most graceful          D. MORE GRACEFULLY

15. Hector and I will paint the whole table ________.
A. themselves         B. myself      C. OURSELVES      D. himself

16. I made this toy. It belongs to ____.
A. myself                B. ME           C. itself                   D. mine

17. Marissa likes to read; _________, her sister Marife prefers to watch TV.
A. however             B. because   C. IN CONTRAST   D. again

18. Anthony has an incredible voice; _________, he will go far in her music career. A. A. otherwise                  B. UNDOUBTEDLY           C. similarly    D. however

19. As the famous saying goes, there’s no use ______ over spilt milk.
A. to cry                  B. cried                   C. CRYING             D. trying

20. In the old days, gentlemen challenged their rivals _______.
A. TO FIGHT                    B. fighting               C. to fought             D. fight

For item 21 – 23: Read the selection and answer the question.   

The habitat for the American alligator has steadily declined every year in the past decade.
It is important for pet owners in the Florida swamps to keep their animals inside in the evening in order to keep them protected.
21. What does the second sentence do?
A. It gives an example.
B. It states an effect.
C. It makes a contrast.
D. It restates the idea found in the first.

The amount of time a person sits during the day is associated with a higher risk of heart disease, diabetes, cancer, and death, regardless of regular exercise, according to a recent study. More than one half of an average person's day is spent being sedentary—sitting, watching television, or working at a computer. Avoiding sedentary time and getting regular exercise are both important for improving your health and survival.

22. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

A. Regular exercise will help counteract the negative effects of being sedentary.
B. Physical activity alone may not be enough to reduce the risk for disease.
C. Sitting still causes some types of heart disease and cancer.
D. Watching television while on a treadmill is considered sedentary time.

Sea turtles migrate across thousands of miles of ocean before returning to nest on the same stretch of coastline where they hatched, but how they do this has mystified scientists for more than fifty years. Sea turtles likely go to great lengths to find the places where they began life because successful nesting requires a combination of environmental features that are rare: soft sand, the right temperature, few predators, and an easily accessible beach.
23. From this passage it is safe to conclude that sea turtles
A. are not easily observed by scientists.
B. cannot lay their eggs on any beach other than the one on which they hatched.
C. will not lay their eggs on beaches with pebbly sand.
D. must have the ability to precisely detect their location

For Item 24 – 26: Read the paragraph below and answer the questions.

The long reign of Elizabeth, who became known as the "Virgin Queen" for her reluctance to endanger her authority through marriage, coincided with the flowering of the English Renaissance, associated with such renowned authors as William Shakespeare. By her death in 1603, England had become a major world power in every respect, and Queen Elizabeth I passed into history as one of England's greatest monarchs.
24. The writer believes Queen Elizabeth I did not marry because
A. she did not want to diminish her power.
B. she did not fall in love.
C. there were no suitable matches.
D. she was preoccupied with the English Renaissance.

25. The word “reluctancecan be replaced by ________.
A. acceptance         B. denial                C. unwillingness    D. eagerness

26. Renowned artists are not said to be _______.
A. popular             B. distinguished     C. acclaimed                    D. common

The selection below pertains to Item 27 – 28.

NASA's Kepler Space Telescope has discovered a star with three planets only slightly larger than Earth. Its outermost planet orbits in the 'Goldilocks' zone—a region where surface temperatures could be moderate enough for liquid water, and perhaps life, to exist. The star ranks among the top 10 nearest stars known to have transiting planets.
27. The purpose of the passage is to
A. explore the possibility of life in outer space.
B. fundraise for further research.
C. announce the discovery of a new planet.
D. describe the conditions required for the ‘Goldilocks’ zone.

28. The tone of the selection is _______.
A. investigative      B. informative      C. comparative       D. descriptive

For item 29 – 31: Read the poem below and answer the questions.

Flying at Night
Ted Kooser, 1939

Above us, stars. Beneath us, constellations.
Five billion miles away, a galaxy dies
like a snowflake falling on water. Below us,
some farmer, feeling the chill of that distant death,
snaps on his yard light, drawing his sheds and barn
back into the little system of his care.
All night, the cities, like shimmering novas,
tug with bright streets at lonely lights like
his.

29. Which of the following lines is an example of simile?
A. Above us, stars. Beneath us, constellations
B. A galaxy dies like a snowflake falling on water.
C. Feeling the chill of that distant death.
D. Back into the little system of his care.

30. What is a constellation?
A. a group of galaxies        B. a group of stars C. a group of snowflakes
D. a group of lights

31. What approach is used in the text?
A. scientific   B. academic  C. literary      D. journalistic

For item 32 – 36: Study the pie chart below and answer the questions.


32. How many percent of the project cost goes to licenses?
A. 5.69%  B. 12.59%  C. 10.49%  D. 17.48%

33.  Which cost has the biggest percentage?
A. production  B. facilities   C. labor  D. insurance

34. Which cost is greater than legal fees but less than licenses?
A. insurance   B. taxes   C. labor  D. facilities

35. If arranged from highest to lowest, what percentage is the third highest?
A. 20.98%  B. 12.59%  C. 17.48%  D. 10.49%

36. Which of the following is FALSE based on the graph?
A. The total of all the percentages is 100%.
B. The production cost has the highest percentage because the salaries of employees are high.
C. Combined, the cost of insurance and legal is more than the cost of license.
D. The cost for licenses is the modal cost.


For item 37 – 39:   Study the histogram above and answer the questions below.

37. More than 50 persons answered M&M as their favorite candy. What age group do they belong?
A. 11-15   B. 21-15   C. 16-20  D. None

38. Which age group has the least response?
A. 0-5    B. 6-10    C. 26-30    D. 16-20

39. Based on the histogram, which is not true in the following?
A. Age group 0-5 did not like M&M so much.
B. It shows the number of people whose favorite candy is M&M.
C. Less than 40 persons prefer M&M over other candies.
D. More than 25 persons in the 6-10 age answered M&M as their favorite candy.

For item 40 - 44  : Read the announcement below and answer the questions.

Student Volunteers Needed!
On Saturday, December 12th, from 10 A.M. until 4 P.M., Carverton Middle School will be holding a music festival in the school gymnasium. The special event will feature a variety of professional musicians and singers.
Task
Time
Date
Make posters
1 P.M.–4 P.M.
December 5th
Set up gym
11 A.M.–4 P.M.
December 11th
Help performers
9 A.M.–4 P.M.
December 12th
Welcome guests
10 A.M.–2 P.M.
December 12th
Clean up gym 
4 P.M.–7 P.M.
December 12th
Interested students should speak with Ms. Braxton, the music teacher. Students who would like to help at the festival must have written permission from a parent or guardian.
40. What time will the festival begin?
A. 10 A.M.       B. 11 A.M.  C. 1 P.M.     D. 2 P.M.    
41. In line 3, the word feature is closest in meaning to _______.
A. look   B. keep        C. include   D. entertain
42. What job will be done the day before the festival begins?
A. Making posters      B. Setting up the gym
C.  Cleaning up the gym       D. Helping the performers

44. Who is told to talk to Ms. Braxton?
A. parents         B. students           C. teachers             D. performers

For item 45: Read the selection below and answer the question.

At the time Paine wrote "Common Sense," most colonists considered themselves to be aggrieved Britons. Paine fundamentally changed the tenor of colonists' argument with the crown when he wrote the following: "Europe, and not England, is the parent country of America. This new world hath been the asylum for the persecuted lovers of civil and religious liberty from every part of Europe. Hither they have fled, not from the tender embraces of the mother, but from the cruelty of the monster; and it is so far true of England, that the same tyranny which drove the first emigrants from home, pursues their descendants still."
45. The main idea of the paragraph suggests that Paine
A. influenced people to migrate from England to the colonies.
B. contributed to the colonists’ growing sense of group identity.
C. refuted the notion that most colonists emigrated from Britain.
D. had come from a country other than England.

For item 46 - 48: Read the selection below and answer the questions.

Victor Hugo, the son of one of Napoleon's officers, decided while still a teenager to become a writer. Although he studied law, he also founded a literary review to which he and other emerging writers published their work. In 1822, Hugo married his childhood sweetheart, Adele Foucher, and published his first volume of poetry, which won him a pension from Louis XVIII. In 1823, Hugo published his first novel, Han d'Islande. His 1827 play, Cromwell, embraced the tenets of Romanticism, which he laid out in the play's preface. The following year, despite a contract to begin work on a novel called Notre Dame de Paris, he set to work on two plays. The first, Marion de Lorme (1829), was censored for its candid portrayal of a courtesan. The second, Hernani, became the subject for a bitter and protracted debate between French Classicists and Romantics.
          In 1831, he finally finished Notre Dame de Paris. In addition to promoting a Romantic aesthetic that would tolerate the imperfect and the grotesque, the book also had a simpler agenda: to increase appreciation of old Gothic structures, which had become the object of vandalism and neglect. Hugo's writing spanned more than six decades, and he was given a national funeral and buried in the Pantheon after his death in 1885.
46. Why did Victor Hugo write Notre Dame de Paris?
A. To pay his extensive debts.
B. To fund his playwriting career.
C. To reject the tenets of Romanticism.
D. To spark interest in architectural preservation.

47. On line 8, the word "tenets" means_____
A. problems           B. principles                    C. advantages        D. examples
48. What approach is used in the text?
A. historical           B. journalistic        C. literary     D. academic

For item 49 - 50: Read the selection below and answer the questions.
A new study suggests that thick crustal plugs and weakened mineral grains may explain a range of relatively speedy moves among tectonic plates around the world, from Hawaii to East Timor. Traditionally, scientists believed that all tectonic plates were pulled by subducting slabs—which resulted from the colder, top boundary layer of the Earth's rocky surface becoming heavy and sinking slowly into the deeper mantle. Yet that process does not account for sudden plate shifts. Such abrupt movement requires that slabs detach from their plates, but doing this quickly is difficult since the slabs should be too cold and stiff to detach.
According to the study, there are additional factors at work. Thick crust from continents or oceanic plateau is swept into the subduction zone, plugging it up and prompting the slab to break off. The detachment process is then accelerated when mineral grains in the necking slab start to shrink, causing the slab to weaken rapidly. The result is tectonic plates that abruptly shift horizontally, or continents suddenly bobbing up.
49. The passage is primarily about
A. the results from new research.
B. the weaknesses of mineral grains.
C. how crust is subducted on the earth’s surface.
D. the types of tectonic plates.

50. What approach is used in the text?
A. historical           B. journalistic        C. literary     D. scientific

-o0o –

Good Luck!