Thursday, February 22, 2018

REVIEWER ALS A&E - ENGLISH - SECONDARY

Learning Strand 1 – Communication Skills - ENGLISH

1. I will go to the concert, but ________ you go as well.
  A. ONLY IF                     B. unless      C. only but    D. as long as

2. I brought along a sandwich, ________ I get hungry.
  A. therefore          B. IN CASE   C. only if       D. because
 
3. ________ she calls me, I feel very happy.
  A. Therefore         B. So that     C. WHENEVER       D. Wherever

4. Take this photo, ________ you can remember me.
 A. while                  B. SO THAT  C. although             D. as long as

5. Myrna will not talk to him ________ he apologizes for what he did.
  A. UNTIL              B. because             C. while        D. only if

6. Luisa will find her dog, ________ it is.
  A. where               B. whenever            C. therefore  D. WHEREVER

7. The principal spoke ________ she knew what she was talking about, but she didn't.
  A. until                  B. although             C. AS IF       D. and

8. ________ my parents arrived, we had to end the party.
  A. As long as        B. ONCE                C. Although   D. Because

9. Watering and feeding new plants is necessary for growth, ______ too much water or fertilizer can kill them.
A. BUT    B. however   C. and    D. because

10. If my husband _____here, he will surely help you.
A. is              B. was          C. WERE      D. will be

11. The teacher together with the students ______ time to relax.
A. NEEDS     B. need         C. needed     D. have needed

12. His bed and breakfast business _____ flourishing.
A. were         B. IS             C. have         D. had

13. The time is running out. Everybody should act ______.
A. quicker     B.  more quick         C. QUICKLY           D. quickest.

14. Between you and me, I think Pamela danced __________ than Joanna.
A. gracefully  B. more graceful     C. the most graceful          D. MORE GRACEFULLY

15. Hector and I will paint the whole table ________.
A. themselves         B. myself      C. OURSELVES      D. himself

16. I made this toy. It belongs to ____.
A. myself                B. ME           C. itself                   D. mine

17. Marissa likes to read; _________, her sister Marife prefers to watch TV.
A. however             B. because   C. IN CONTRAST   D. again

18. Anthony has an incredible voice; _________, he will go far in her music career. A. A. otherwise                  B. UNDOUBTEDLY           C. similarly    D. however

19. As the famous saying goes, there’s no use ______ over spilt milk.
A. to cry                  B. cried                   C. CRYING             D. trying

20. In the old days, gentlemen challenged their rivals _______.
A. TO FIGHT                    B. fighting               C. to fought             D. fight

For item 21 – 23: Read the selection and answer the question.   

The habitat for the American alligator has steadily declined every year in the past decade.
It is important for pet owners in the Florida swamps to keep their animals inside in the evening in order to keep them protected.
21. What does the second sentence do?
A. It gives an example.
B. It states an effect.
C. It makes a contrast.
D. It restates the idea found in the first.

The amount of time a person sits during the day is associated with a higher risk of heart disease, diabetes, cancer, and death, regardless of regular exercise, according to a recent study. More than one half of an average person's day is spent being sedentary—sitting, watching television, or working at a computer. Avoiding sedentary time and getting regular exercise are both important for improving your health and survival.

22. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

A. Regular exercise will help counteract the negative effects of being sedentary.
B. Physical activity alone may not be enough to reduce the risk for disease.
C. Sitting still causes some types of heart disease and cancer.
D. Watching television while on a treadmill is considered sedentary time.

Sea turtles migrate across thousands of miles of ocean before returning to nest on the same stretch of coastline where they hatched, but how they do this has mystified scientists for more than fifty years. Sea turtles likely go to great lengths to find the places where they began life because successful nesting requires a combination of environmental features that are rare: soft sand, the right temperature, few predators, and an easily accessible beach.
23. From this passage it is safe to conclude that sea turtles
A. are not easily observed by scientists.
B. cannot lay their eggs on any beach other than the one on which they hatched.
C. will not lay their eggs on beaches with pebbly sand.
D. must have the ability to precisely detect their location

For Item 24 – 26: Read the paragraph below and answer the questions.

The long reign of Elizabeth, who became known as the "Virgin Queen" for her reluctance to endanger her authority through marriage, coincided with the flowering of the English Renaissance, associated with such renowned authors as William Shakespeare. By her death in 1603, England had become a major world power in every respect, and Queen Elizabeth I passed into history as one of England's greatest monarchs.
24. The writer believes Queen Elizabeth I did not marry because
A. she did not want to diminish her power.
B. she did not fall in love.
C. there were no suitable matches.
D. she was preoccupied with the English Renaissance.

25. The word “reluctancecan be replaced by ________.
A. acceptance         B. denial                C. unwillingness    D. eagerness

26. Renowned artists are not said to be _______.
A. popular             B. distinguished     C. acclaimed                    D. common

The selection below pertains to Item 27 – 28.

NASA's Kepler Space Telescope has discovered a star with three planets only slightly larger than Earth. Its outermost planet orbits in the 'Goldilocks' zone—a region where surface temperatures could be moderate enough for liquid water, and perhaps life, to exist. The star ranks among the top 10 nearest stars known to have transiting planets.
27. The purpose of the passage is to
A. explore the possibility of life in outer space.
B. fundraise for further research.
C. announce the discovery of a new planet.
D. describe the conditions required for the ‘Goldilocks’ zone.

28. The tone of the selection is _______.
A. investigative      B. informative      C. comparative       D. descriptive

For item 29 – 31: Read the poem below and answer the questions.

Flying at Night
Ted Kooser, 1939

Above us, stars. Beneath us, constellations.
Five billion miles away, a galaxy dies
like a snowflake falling on water. Below us,
some farmer, feeling the chill of that distant death,
snaps on his yard light, drawing his sheds and barn
back into the little system of his care.
All night, the cities, like shimmering novas,
tug with bright streets at lonely lights like
his.

29. Which of the following lines is an example of simile?
A. Above us, stars. Beneath us, constellations
B. A galaxy dies like a snowflake falling on water.
C. Feeling the chill of that distant death.
D. Back into the little system of his care.

30. What is a constellation?
A. a group of galaxies        B. a group of stars C. a group of snowflakes
D. a group of lights

31. What approach is used in the text?
A. scientific   B. academic  C. literary      D. journalistic

For item 32 – 36: Study the pie chart below and answer the questions.


32. How many percent of the project cost goes to licenses?
A. 5.69%  B. 12.59%  C. 10.49%  D. 17.48%

33.  Which cost has the biggest percentage?
A. production  B. facilities   C. labor  D. insurance

34. Which cost is greater than legal fees but less than licenses?
A. insurance   B. taxes   C. labor  D. facilities

35. If arranged from highest to lowest, what percentage is the third highest?
A. 20.98%  B. 12.59%  C. 17.48%  D. 10.49%

36. Which of the following is FALSE based on the graph?
A. The total of all the percentages is 100%.
B. The production cost has the highest percentage because the salaries of employees are high.
C. Combined, the cost of insurance and legal is more than the cost of license.
D. The cost for licenses is the modal cost.


For item 37 – 39:   Study the histogram above and answer the questions below.

37. More than 50 persons answered M&M as their favorite candy. What age group do they belong?
A. 11-15   B. 21-15   C. 16-20  D. None

38. Which age group has the least response?
A. 0-5    B. 6-10    C. 26-30    D. 16-20

39. Based on the histogram, which is not true in the following?
A. Age group 0-5 did not like M&M so much.
B. It shows the number of people whose favorite candy is M&M.
C. Less than 40 persons prefer M&M over other candies.
D. More than 25 persons in the 6-10 age answered M&M as their favorite candy.

For item 40 - 44  : Read the announcement below and answer the questions.

Student Volunteers Needed!
On Saturday, December 12th, from 10 A.M. until 4 P.M., Carverton Middle School will be holding a music festival in the school gymnasium. The special event will feature a variety of professional musicians and singers.
Task
Time
Date
Make posters
1 P.M.–4 P.M.
December 5th
Set up gym
11 A.M.–4 P.M.
December 11th
Help performers
9 A.M.–4 P.M.
December 12th
Welcome guests
10 A.M.–2 P.M.
December 12th
Clean up gym 
4 P.M.–7 P.M.
December 12th
Interested students should speak with Ms. Braxton, the music teacher. Students who would like to help at the festival must have written permission from a parent or guardian.
40. What time will the festival begin?
A. 10 A.M.       B. 11 A.M.  C. 1 P.M.     D. 2 P.M.    
41. In line 3, the word feature is closest in meaning to _______.
A. look   B. keep        C. include   D. entertain
42. What job will be done the day before the festival begins?
A. Making posters      B. Setting up the gym
C.  Cleaning up the gym       D. Helping the performers

44. Who is told to talk to Ms. Braxton?
A. parents         B. students           C. teachers             D. performers

For item 45: Read the selection below and answer the question.

At the time Paine wrote "Common Sense," most colonists considered themselves to be aggrieved Britons. Paine fundamentally changed the tenor of colonists' argument with the crown when he wrote the following: "Europe, and not England, is the parent country of America. This new world hath been the asylum for the persecuted lovers of civil and religious liberty from every part of Europe. Hither they have fled, not from the tender embraces of the mother, but from the cruelty of the monster; and it is so far true of England, that the same tyranny which drove the first emigrants from home, pursues their descendants still."
45. The main idea of the paragraph suggests that Paine
A. influenced people to migrate from England to the colonies.
B. contributed to the colonists’ growing sense of group identity.
C. refuted the notion that most colonists emigrated from Britain.
D. had come from a country other than England.

For item 46 - 48: Read the selection below and answer the questions.

Victor Hugo, the son of one of Napoleon's officers, decided while still a teenager to become a writer. Although he studied law, he also founded a literary review to which he and other emerging writers published their work. In 1822, Hugo married his childhood sweetheart, Adele Foucher, and published his first volume of poetry, which won him a pension from Louis XVIII. In 1823, Hugo published his first novel, Han d'Islande. His 1827 play, Cromwell, embraced the tenets of Romanticism, which he laid out in the play's preface. The following year, despite a contract to begin work on a novel called Notre Dame de Paris, he set to work on two plays. The first, Marion de Lorme (1829), was censored for its candid portrayal of a courtesan. The second, Hernani, became the subject for a bitter and protracted debate between French Classicists and Romantics.
          In 1831, he finally finished Notre Dame de Paris. In addition to promoting a Romantic aesthetic that would tolerate the imperfect and the grotesque, the book also had a simpler agenda: to increase appreciation of old Gothic structures, which had become the object of vandalism and neglect. Hugo's writing spanned more than six decades, and he was given a national funeral and buried in the Pantheon after his death in 1885.
46. Why did Victor Hugo write Notre Dame de Paris?
A. To pay his extensive debts.
B. To fund his playwriting career.
C. To reject the tenets of Romanticism.
D. To spark interest in architectural preservation.

47. On line 8, the word "tenets" means_____
A. problems           B. principles                    C. advantages        D. examples
48. What approach is used in the text?
A. historical           B. journalistic        C. literary     D. academic

For item 49 - 50: Read the selection below and answer the questions.
A new study suggests that thick crustal plugs and weakened mineral grains may explain a range of relatively speedy moves among tectonic plates around the world, from Hawaii to East Timor. Traditionally, scientists believed that all tectonic plates were pulled by subducting slabs—which resulted from the colder, top boundary layer of the Earth's rocky surface becoming heavy and sinking slowly into the deeper mantle. Yet that process does not account for sudden plate shifts. Such abrupt movement requires that slabs detach from their plates, but doing this quickly is difficult since the slabs should be too cold and stiff to detach.
According to the study, there are additional factors at work. Thick crust from continents or oceanic plateau is swept into the subduction zone, plugging it up and prompting the slab to break off. The detachment process is then accelerated when mineral grains in the necking slab start to shrink, causing the slab to weaken rapidly. The result is tectonic plates that abruptly shift horizontally, or continents suddenly bobbing up.
49. The passage is primarily about
A. the results from new research.
B. the weaknesses of mineral grains.
C. how crust is subducted on the earth’s surface.
D. the types of tectonic plates.

50. What approach is used in the text?
A. historical           B. journalistic        C. literary     D. scientific

-o0o –

Good Luck!

REVIEWER - ENGLISH - ELEMENTARY

Learning Strand 1 – Communication Skills – ENGLISH - ELEMENTARY

1. Melba and I ______ breakfast every day.
A. eats          B. eat           C. does eat             D. ate

2. Juan _____ know much about karate.
A. do not       B. has not     C. does not            D. have not

3. ______ she know how to read?
A. Does        B. Has          C. Do                      D. Is

4. We always ________ mass on Sunday.
A. attend      B. attending  C. attends               D. have attend

5. My dog Snowy ______ me smile.
A. make        B. makes      C. has make           D. have make

6. The airplane landed _______ on the runway.
A. shyly        B. carefully    C. safely                D. warmly

7. I was scared whenever the taxi driver droved ______.
A. slowly       B. gently       C. recklessly                    D. repeatedly

8. John waited ______ for his friend to arrive.
A. closely      B. patiently  C. hurriedly             D. kindly

9. Anna made this stick house _______.
A. herself     B. itself         C. himself               D. myself

10. Raul and I will paint the whole gate _______.
A. themselves         B. yourselves          C. ourselves           D. myself

11. The wound healed ______ quickly.
A. herself                B. myself                C. himself               D. itself

12. Each of the students ____ responsible for doing his or her assignment in the library.
A. is                       B. are                     C. have                   D. has

13. My pair of glasses ____ black.
A. are           B. is             C. has          D. have

14. Everybody _____ welcome to attend my birthday party on Saturday.
A. was          B. were         C. is             D. are

15. My little sister dances ________.
A. the most gracefully        B. more gracefully   C. gracefully                    D. graceful

16. No doubt, John is the ___________ of them all.
A. most intelligent  B. most intelligently           C. more intelligently D. intelligently

17. The coconut tree is ________ than the banana tree.
A. smaller     B. prettier     C. taller        D. slower

18. The food here gets ______ every time I come.
A. worser      B. good         C. worst                  D. worse

19. I have _____ time than usual.
A. little          B. many        C. less         D. good

20. Father thinks the room looks ______ if we paint it yellow.
A. well          B. very good           C. better      D. more better

21. Which sentence is correct?
A. The three tiny brown mice ate my pillow case.
B. The brown tiny three mice ate my pillow case.
C. The three brown tiny mice ate my pillow case.
D. The tiny three brown mice ate my pillow case.

22. It was a/an _____________ coin.
A. ancient, gold, Mexican
B. Mexican, ancient, gold
C. ancient, Mexican, gold
D. gold, ancient, Mexican

23. The fans are eagerly waiting for their idol to walk ______ that door.
A. into           B.  by           C. through             D. on

24. Don’t leave your food uncover ____ the table.
A. on            B. besides     D. in             D. over
25. The boy scouts are afraid to go farther __________.
A. through the mountain    B. by the river         C. in the hills D. into the woods

26. Mr. Castro felt tired whenever he walked _________.
A. through the street         B. by the street       D. at the street        D. down the street

For item 27: Read the following statements and answer the question.

 Making Homemade Soap

I.  Pour the mixture in the mold and check your soap after one day.
II. In the pint jar, add the coconut, olive and olive oils and heat in the microwave.
III. In the mixing bowl, add the herbs, essential oils and other ingredients.
IV. When both the lye and the oils are at the right temperature, pour the oils into the mixing bowl.

27. What is the correct sequence in making homemade soap?
A. III, IV, I, & II        B. II, I, IV, & III        C. II, IV, III & I         D. III, II, IV & I

For item 28 – 30: Read the selections and answer the question. (Source: https://www.helpteaching.com)

Every morning when I get up I eat breakfast, brush my teeth, comb my hair, get dressed and make my bed. After that, it is my job to feed the dog in the morning. Then, I can read or play until it is time to walk to school.

28. The main topic of this passage is:
A. What time I eat breakfast
B. How my brother helps me get ready for school
C. My morning activities
D. Riding the bus to school

Every night the moon looks a little different. This is because as the moon moves around the earth, sunlight shines on different parts of the moon. The part of the moon that the sunlight is shining on is the part of the moon we see. The moon goes through four main stages. The first quarter moon, full moon, third quarter moon, and new moon are the four stages. It takes about 29 days for the moon to finish all the stages. If it is a clear night, look in the sky. You will find the moon in one of its stages.

29. This passage is mainly about
A. why the moon looks different every night.
B. why the earth moves around the sun.
C. how the sun can be seen in the evening.
D. how the moon is different from the sun.

Today was the last day of school before summer vacation. The students of Mr. Dela Cruz were very excited. Mr. Dela Cruz was trying to teach how to divide fractions but the students were kept on drawing on their papers and talking to each other. He gave a warning but nobody listened. Eventually, the students’ recess time was cut in half.

30. What is the reason why the recess time of the students is less than usual?
A. They preferred to stay inside their room to chat.
B. It was raining outside.
C. They were not paying attention to Mr. Dela Cruz’s teaching.
D. It was the last day of school.

For item 31 - 33: Read the selection below and answer the questions.

          (1) Juan loves his dog Brownie very much. (2) He feeds him on time every day. (3) When Brownie gets dirty, Juan bathes him with soap and water. (4) He also brings him to the park to run and play with him. (5) Juan thinks that Brownie is the best dog in the world.

31. Which statement/s is/are the main idea of the selection?
A. 1              B. 2 & 3                  C.  1 & 5                 D. 5

32. What is/are the supporting detail/s of the selection?
A. 2 & 3        B. 1 & 5                  C. 2, 3, & 4             D. 5

33. What statement is an opinion?
A. 1              B, 2                        C. 5                        D. 2   

For item 34 – 38: Read the selection below and answer the questions.

The sun was top on Melba’s head when she arrived home from school. She has just begun checking quizzes when she heard repeated siren. She went outside and saw billowing smoke coming from a house in a distant.

34. What time of the day it is?
A. early morning      B. noon        C. late afternoon     D. evening

35. What is the profession of Melba?
A. mother               B. teacher    C. student               D. checker

36. From where the siren is coming from?
A. ambulance          B. fire truck C. police car            D. did not mention

37. What was happening outside?
A. There is a tornado.        B. There is a typhoon.      
C. There is a fire.             D. There is an accident.

38. What will Melba probably do?
A. She will return inside their house and continue checking the quizzes.
B. She will inform her family about what is happening, gather important documents, and prepare to move out when needed.
C. She will stay outside and watch what was happening.
D. She will go near the troubled house to get a closer look.

For item 39 – 40: Read the poem below and answer the questions.


TO JOSEPHINE
Jose Rizal

Josephine, Josephine
Who to these shores have come
Looking for a nest, a home,
Like a wandering swallow;
If your fate is taking you
To Japan, China or Shanghai,
Don't forget that on these shores
A heart for you beats so high

39. Who do you think is Josephine?
A. mother             B. sister                 C. girlfriend        D. name of a ship

40. Whose heart is beating so high?

A. the swallow’s            B. the author’s     C. Josephine’s      D. the captain’s

REVIEWER - SCIENCE - SECONDARY

Science Practice Review - Secondary

1. It is ideal to plant on a full moon because______.
A. the good spirits are out in the field to help the farmers
B. the moon’s gravity helps the plants absorb water better
C. the farmers can see better because of the light coming from the moon
D. the god of agriculture is watching the farmers

2. An eclipse happens when____________.
A. an angry demon tries to eat piece of sun or moon
B. the people do not make an offering
C. the moon lines up exactly with the sun and the earth
D. the sun is revolving around the earth

3. Rain is _____________.
A. precipitation in liquid form
B. the tears of a sad god
C. the result when a person with bad voice sings
D.

4. The moon is the earth’s one and only ______.
A. planet
B. satellite
C. friend
D. meteor

5. A solar eclipse happens when the moon is between the __________.
A. earth and sun
B. earth and Jupiter
C. sun and Mercury
D. sun and Venus

6. During a lunar eclipse, the moon’s usual color is ____________.
A. light blue
B. dark brown
C. deep-coppery orange
D. bluish white

7. Some water from the rivers, lakes, streams, wetlands, and oceans evaporate because of ___________.
A. the air around us
B. the sun’s heat
C. the moon’s light
D. gravity

8. Water vapor in the air condenses into clouds. When it can no longer hold the moisture, it falls to the ground as ____________.
A. rain
B. snow
C. air
D. fog

9. Observable events or occurrences in nature are called ________.
A. scientific observations
B. natural phenomena
C. superstitious beliefs
D. folklores

10. The following are examples of natural phenomena except ______.
A. volcanic formation
B. tornado
C. earthquake
D. pregnancy

11. A method of planting wherein the farmers choose the correct phase of the moon in which to plant, weed, cultivate, and harvest their crops is called ________.
A. hydroponics
B. lunar agriculture
C. contour farming
D. green revolution

12. A ___________ occurs when moon blocks the sun’s light from a small portion of the earth.
A. full moon
B. solar eclipse
C. lunar eclipse
D. blue moon

13. Our ancestors believed that the rain was caused by the tears of a sad god named _____.
A. Amihan
B. Tungkung Langit
C. Alunsina
D.Habagat

14. It is best to plant when there is a ________.
A. solar eclipse
B. lunar eclipse
C. typhoon
D. full moon

15. The moon passes through four major phases or shapes as it completes its revolution around the earth for ______days.
A. 31
B. 27.3
C. 365
D. 31

16. During ________, the bright side of the moon faces away from the earth. At this time, the moon looks very dark.
A. first quarter moon
B. full moon
C. new moon
D. last quarter moon

17. The right side of the moon appears bright and its left side appears dark. The bright side of the moon gets larger every day until it becomes a full moon.
A. first quarter moon
B. last quarter moon
C. blue moon
D. new moon

18. The force that pulls everything toward the ground is called ______.
A. inertia
B. velocity
C. gravity
D. magnetism

19. The process in which moisture from bodies of water evaporates, condenses into clouds, and precipitates back into the earth is called the _____.
A. water cycle
B. rain
C. typhoon
D. condensation

20. The different shapes of the moon are called its ______.
A. faces
B. side views
C. phases
D. brightness

21. What is not true about earthquake and volcano?
A. Earthquake usually occurs near or at the same location as volcanoes
B. They both result from the movement of tectonic plates.
C. When there is an earthquake, there is volcanic activity.
D. They are both natural phenomena.

22. When we walk a distance, we sweat a lot. Does it help us?
A. No, because sweating leads to body odor.
B. Yes, because people will see that we are exercising.
C. Yes, because it regulates our body temperature.
D. No, because we will have dry skin.

23. One way of increasing endangered species is by breeding in captivity the remaining individuals. What is not true about this technique?
A. It reduces fertility.
B. It increases genetic diversity.
C. It may lead to species extinction.
D. It is costly.

24. A positive feedback mechanism can be manifested in ________.
A.   human blood pressure                                B. hunger         
C.   regulation of blood sugar in human             D. child birth

25. The hormone that stimulates the ovaries to secrete estrogen at ovulation is called ______.
A. testosterone   B. progesterone   C. follicle stimulating hormone  D. luteinizing hormone

26. Which of the following is a FALSE statement?
A. Only men have testosterone.
B. Both male and female have follicle-stimulating hormone.
C. Both male and female have luteinizing hormone.
D. Both male and female have progesterone.

Study the table below:
                    ABC                       DEF
Height       7,500 feet                     9,000 feet
Shape       tall and broad             tall and steep
Eruption    erupted in 1965           erupted more than 10,000 years ago

Which volcano is active?
27. A. ABC    B. DEF         C. Both ABC and DEF       D. None of them

28. Family X has 3 children and 1 other relative; has a combined monthly earnings of Php 65,000.00 and a daily budget of Php 1,000.00. On the other hand, Family Z has 5 children and 2 other relatives; has a combined earnings of  Php 65,000.00 and a daily allowance of P 1,000.00. Which family lives a better life?
A. Family Z because they have more members to help each other
B. Both families live a better life because they their earnings are big.
C. Family Z because they have more exemptions in paying their income tax
D. Family X because they have less number of mouth to feed

29. Which of the following is a characteristic of scrotum?
A. It produces sperms and male hormones.
B. It carries both urine and semen.
C. It is a loose pouch of skin that holds the testicles.
D. It helps expel semen during ejaculation.

30. Where do earthquakes likely to occur?
A. Along east coast of North and South America
B. Far away from the Pacific Ring of Fire
C. Along the west coast of Asia
D. In narrow zones and on plate boundaries

31. Which of the following statement is false?
A. Fraternal twins are developed from two different sperms and two different eggs.
B. Identical twins are developed from the same sperm and same egg.
C. Fraternal twins are usually 2 boys, 2 girls, or a boy and a girl.
D. Identical twins are usually 2 boys, 2 girls, or a boy and a girl.

32. Antonio sweats a lot while walking from home to school so he always brings face towel.
What is the reason of his sweating considering that he is a normal healthy boy?
A. He needs cool air while walking.
B. His body releases heat.
C. He needs to sweat to prevent him from urinating.
D. His body becomes strong by walking.

33. Mang Ambo’s corn fields are frequently infested with rats. His fellow farmers advised him the following techniques:

I. Burn the whole corn field after each harvest.
II. Raise cats to catch mice.
III. Use fishing nets in catching rats.
IV. Use pesticide (rodenticide).

Which of the above techniques can be effective in eradicating the rats without harming the environment and other beneficial farm animals and insects?

A. II and III   B. III only      C. I, II, and III   D. All of the above

34. Marasmus and kwashiorkor are both form of malnutrition. Which of the following is a symptom of kwashiorkor?
A. dehydration         B. diarrhea    C. stomach bulging  D. stomach shrinkage

35. When two tectonic plates converge or collide with each other, the following happens:

I.  formation of mountains
II. formation of volcanoes
III. eruption of volcanoes
IV. occurrence of earthquake

A. I and III    B. I, II and IV      C. I, II, and III       D. All of the above