ALS A&E REVIEWER: SCIENCE – ELEMENTARY

Choose the letter of the correct 

1. The system in the human body responsible for the continuation of the human race.

A. circulatory           B. respiratory                    C. reproductive      D. integumentary

2. There are _______ organ systems of the human body.

A. 8              B. 10            C. 9              D. 12

3. The most important organs of the nervous system are __________.

A. blood & heart      B. brain & spinal cord        C. testes & ovaries  D. bones & muscles

4. The estrogen and progesterone are produced in the ________.

A. ovaries    B. testes       C. pituitary glands   D. brain

5. The developing fetus stays in the _______ until it is ready to be born.

A. cervix       B. fallopian tube      C. ovaries     D. uterus

6. It is responsible for the production of sperm and testosterone.

A. prostate    B. testis       C. scrotum              D. penis

7. It is made up of the lungs and the airways which facilitate the exchange of gases with the environment and within the body.

A. circulatory system   B. sensory system    C. respiratory system  D. urinary system

8. The ________ separates the thoracic cavity, containing the heart and lungs, from the abdominal cavity and performs an important function in respiration: as it  contracts, the volume of the thoracic cavity increases and air is drawn into the lungs.

A. stomach            B. diaphragm       C. liver         D. small intestine

9. This system enables the body to extract energy from the food we eat.

A. endocrine          B. urinary               C. nutritive   D. digestive

For Item 10 – 12, see the drawing below and answer the question

(Image from http://slideplayer.com)

10. The breaking down or digestion of foods starts in the ___________.

A. esophagus          B. mouth      C. stomach   D. small intestines

11. The largest organ in the digestive system is the ________.

A. liver         B. small intestine     C. large intestine     D. stomach

12. A hormone produced by the pancreas necessary for the absorption of glucose in the body is called ________.

A. bile           B. enzyme              C. insulin               D. ptyalin

13. The following are the characteristics of mammals except _______.

A. They have hair or fur.

B. Most mammals are born alive.

C. They are cold-blooded animals.

D. They have special organs called mammary glands.

14. The blue whale is classified as a/an  __________.

A. fish           B. amphibian           C. reptile       D. mammal

15. Which of the following does not belong to the group.

A. frog, salamander, newt            B. jellyfish, bonito, galunggong

C. turtle, crocodile, snake            D. whale, gorilla, cow

16. Bats are classified as ___________.

A. birds         B. reptiles               C. mammals           D. amphibians

17. Sharks are classified under _________.

A. fishes      B. mammals           C. amphibians         D. reptiles

18. A characteristic that helps an organism survive in its natural environment is called __________.

A. natural selection            B. adaptation         C. protection           D. habitat

19. Any color, shape or pattern that lets an organism blend into its environment is known as a __________ .

A. camouflage        B. artistry      C. coloring    D. mimicry

20. An adaptation in which an organism gets protection from predators by looking like a dangerous animal is called __________.

A. protective resemblance   B. protective coloring       C. hibernating         D. mimicry

21. Alugbati and banana are examples of ___________ plants because their stems are soft, usually smooth, and greenish in color.

A.  woody     B. herbaceous       C. shrub                 D. aerial

22. Which of the groupings below is not correct?

A. narra, terrestrial, tree              B. upo, terrestrial, vine     

C. banana, terrestrial, tree         D. santan, terrestrial, shrub

23. Lotus is a/an __________plant.

A. aerial        B. terrestrial            C. woody      D. aquatic

24. These are plants that grow upright, but stay close to the ground and do not grow tall.

A. shrubs      B. vines        C. trees        C. flowering

25. The following are the bases for the classification of plants except ________.

A. habitat      B. have lowers and seeds  or not C. type of stem       D. means of production

26. They are egg-laying mammals. Examples are the platypus and echidna.

A. marsupials          B. monotremes      C. placentals           D. birds

27. _________ are mammals whose young are born in a relatively undeveloped state. After being born, the young (called ‘joeys’) crawl into a special pouch in the mother’s body. Here they undergo further development, and have access to their mother’s milk. Examples include the opossums, kangaroos, wallabies, bilbies, and bandicoots.

A. placentals           B. monotremes       C. marsupials         D. primates

28. They give birth to live young. While in the womb, the developing fetus receives nourishment from an organ called a placenta. They include the tiger, blue whale, vampire bat, and man. These mammals are called _______________.

A. placentals                    B. marsupials          C. monotremes       D. reptiles    

29. Wikipedia mentioned the five climates of the Philippines as tropical rainforest, tropical savanna, tropical monsoon, humid subtropical, and _________.

A. volcanic              B. oceanic              C. temperate           D. rainy

30. Based on the distribution of rainfall, the climates of the Philippines are classified into 4 types. Type IV is characterized as_______.

A. Two pronounced seasons: dry from November to April and wet during the rest of the year.

B. No dry season with a pronounced rainfall from November to January.

 

C. Seasons are not very pronounced, relatively dry from November to April, and wet during the rest of the year.

 

D. Rainfall is more or less evenly distributed throughout the year.

31. Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?

A. The nervous system makes the body move.

B. The nervous system helps people detect stimuli from their environment.

C. The nervous system delivers oxygen to all parts of the body. 

4. The nervous system helps us to think and remember.

32. The ______is the center of the nervous system and the seat of human intelligence.

A. medulla oblongata         B. brain        C. spinal cord          D. cerebellum

For item 33 – 35, refer the table below:

I. Cerebellum

II. Cerebrum

III. Medulla oblongata

IV. Cerebral cortex

33. It transmits signals between the spinal cord and the brain. It also controls autonomic or involuntary functions such as heartbeat and breathing.

A. I               B. II              C. III             D. IV

34. Cognitive processes such as thinking, memorizing and decision making occur in this outer gray part of the cerebrum.

A. I               B. II              C. III             D. IV

35. It is sometimes referred to as the “little brain” and it controls muscle coordination and balance.

A. I               B. II              C. III             D. IV

36. The circulatory system is composed of the heart and _______.

A. blood        B. varicose veins     C. blood vessels    D. oxygen

37. Which of the following is not a function of the blood?

A. It helps in the production of carbon dioxide.

B. It transports oxygen and food to the cells of the body.

C. It helps fight against harmful organisms like bacteria.

D. It serves to carry waste products to be excreted by the body.

38. The following conditions are associated with the circulatory system except _____.

A. hypertension       B. myocardial infarction     C. varicose veins     D. paraplegia

39. It is caused by the blockage of arteries. A person experiencing it feels a sudden chest pain, usually radiating to the left shoulder and arm, and even to the back, accompanied by sweating and difficulty in breathing.

A. high blood pressure       B. heart attack       C. anemia     D. rheumatic heart disease

For item 40 – 42, study the diagram below from http://myscienceschool.org and answer the questions.

40. What do you call the sun and water in the food chain or ecosystem?

A. autotrophs        B. biotic components         C. abiotic components     D. decomposers

41. What is the immediate effect if the snake is absent in the food chain?

A. The grass will die.

B. The frog will temporarily increase its number.

C. The hawk will eventually die.

D. The decomposer will have nothing to eat.

42. Which of the following animals in the food cycle is carnivorous?

A. frog

B. snake

C. hawk

D. all of the above

For item 43 – 44, refer the diagram below and answer the questions.

(Image from https://www.smore.com)

43. What aids in photosynthesis?

A. respiration          B. oxygen     C. carbon dioxide  D. human

44. What is the immediate effect if carbon dioxide is removed from the cycle?

A. The plant will die first.

B. The human will die first.

C. Plants and animals will die at the same time.

D. The earth will die.

45. Barangay Walang Ilaw is having an increase in birth rate over the years. What will happen if this will continue?

A. increase demand for fresh water and food

B. malnutrition and starvation

C. deterioration of living conditions

D. all of the above

46. It is a disease caused by the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito infected with Plasmodium parasites.

A. dengue     B. malaria    C. typhoid fever       D. influenza

47. Common cold can be treated by antibiotic.

A. true                    B. false        C. sometimes          D. often

48. Intestinal worms or ascaris can be treated by ___________.

A. lagundi     B. sambong  C, pansit-pansitan   D. niyug-niyogan

49. The people of Barangay Lulubog-Lilitaw lives beside a river where it serves as their communal garbage and sewage facility. What would happen to the river in the coming years?

A. The river will bring water-borne diseases.

B. The river will become polluted over time.

C. The river will dried out.

D. All of the above.

50. A powerful earthquake happened in a community. What do you expect to see?

A. Some people died.

B. Buildings collapsed.

C. Roads and bridges destroyed.

D. All of the above.

REVIEWER ALS A&E - ENGLISH - SECONDARY

Learning Strand 1 – Communication Skills - ENGLISH

1. I will go to the concert, but ________ you go as well.

  A. ONLY IF                     B. unless      C. only but    D. as long as

2. I brought along a sandwich, ________ I get hungry.

  A. therefore          B. IN CASE   C. only if       D. because

 

3. ________ she calls me, I feel very happy.

  A. Therefore         B. So that     C. WHENEVER       D. Wherever

4. Take this photo, ________ you can remember me.

 A. while                  B. SO THAT  C. although             D. as long as

5. Myrna will not talk to him ________ he apologizes for what he did.

  A. UNTIL              B. because             C. while        D. only if

6. Luisa will find her dog, ________ it is.

  A. where               B. whenever            C. therefore  D. WHEREVER

7. The principal spoke ________ she knew what she was talking about, but she didn't.

  A. until                  B. although             C. AS IF       D. and

8. ________ my parents arrived, we had to end the party.

  A. As long as        B. ONCE                C. Although   D. Because

9. Watering and feeding new plants is necessary for growth, ______ too much water or fertilizer can kill them.

A. BUT    B. however   C. and    D. because

10. If my husband _____here, he will surely help you.

A. is              B. was          C. WERE      D. will be

11. The teacher together with the students ______ time to relax.

A. NEEDS     B. need         C. needed     D. have needed

12. His bed and breakfast business _____ flourishing.

A. were         B. IS             C. have         D. had

13. The time is running out. Everybody should act ______.

A. quicker     B.  more quick         C. QUICKLY           D. quickest.

14. Between you and me, I think Pamela danced __________ than Joanna.

A. gracefully  B. more graceful     C. the most graceful          D. MORE GRACEFULLY

15. Hector and I will paint the whole table ________.

A. themselves         B. myself      C. OURSELVES      D. himself

16. I made this toy. It belongs to ____.

A. myself                B. ME           C. itself                   D. mine

17. Marissa likes to read; _________, her sister Marife prefers to watch TV.

A. however             B. because   C. IN CONTRAST   D. again

18. Anthony has an incredible voice; _________, he will go far in her music career. A. A. otherwise                  B. UNDOUBTEDLY           C. similarly    D. however

19. As the famous saying goes, there’s no use ______ over spilt milk.

A. to cry                  B. cried                   C. CRYING             D. trying

20. In the old days, gentlemen challenged their rivals _______.

A. TO FIGHT                    B. fighting               C. to fought             D. fight

For item 21 – 23: Read the selection and answer the question.   

The habitat for the American alligator has steadily declined every year in the past decade.

It is important for pet owners in the Florida swamps to keep their animals inside in the evening in order to keep them protected.

21. What does the second sentence do?

A. It gives an example.

B. It states an effect.

C. It makes a contrast.

D. It restates the idea found in the first.

The amount of time a person sits during the day is associated with a higher risk of heart disease, diabetes, cancer, and death, regardless of regular exercise, according to a recent study. More than one half of an average person's day is spent being sedentary—sitting, watching television, or working at a computer. Avoiding sedentary time and getting regular exercise are both important for improving your health and survival.

22. Which of the following is implied by the passage?

A. Regular exercise will help counteract the negative effects of being sedentary.

B. Physical activity alone may not be enough to reduce the risk for disease.

C. Sitting still causes some types of heart disease and cancer.

D. Watching television while on a treadmill is considered sedentary time.

Sea turtles migrate across thousands of miles of ocean before returning to nest on the same stretch of coastline where they hatched, but how they do this has mystified scientists for more than fifty years. Sea turtles likely go to great lengths to find the places where they began life because successful nesting requires a combination of environmental features that are rare: soft sand, the right temperature, few predators, and an easily accessible beach.

23. From this passage it is safe to conclude that sea turtles

A. are not easily observed by scientists.

B. cannot lay their eggs on any beach other than the one on which they hatched.

C. will not lay their eggs on beaches with pebbly sand.

D. must have the ability to precisely detect their location

For Item 24 – 26: Read the paragraph below and answer the questions.

The long reign of Elizabeth, who became known as the "Virgin Queen" for her reluctance to endanger her authority through marriage, coincided with the flowering of the English Renaissance, associated with such renowned authors as William Shakespeare. By her death in 1603, England had become a major world power in every respect, and Queen Elizabeth I passed into history as one of England's greatest monarchs.

24. The writer believes Queen Elizabeth I did not marry because

A. she did not want to diminish her power.

B. she did not fall in love.

C. there were no suitable matches.

D. she was preoccupied with the English Renaissance.

25. The word “reluctance” can be replaced by ________.

A. acceptance         B. denial                C. unwillingness    D. eagerness

26. Renowned artists are not said to be _______.

A. popular             B. distinguished     C. acclaimed                    D. common

The selection below pertains to Item 27 – 28.

NASA's Kepler Space Telescope has discovered a star with three planets only slightly larger than Earth. Its outermost planet orbits in the 'Goldilocks' zone—a region where surface temperatures could be moderate enough for liquid water, and perhaps life, to exist. The star ranks among the top 10 nearest stars known to have transiting planets.

27. The purpose of the passage is to

A. explore the possibility of life in outer space.

B. fundraise for further research.

C. announce the discovery of a new planet.

D. describe the conditions required for the ‘Goldilocks’ zone.

28. The tone of the selection is _______.

A. investigative      B. informative      C. comparative       D. descriptive

For item 29 – 31: Read the poem below and answer the questions.

Flying at Night

Ted Kooser, 1939

Above us, stars. Beneath us, constellations.

Five billion miles away, a galaxy dies

like a snowflake falling on water. Below us,

some farmer, feeling the chill of that distant death,

snaps on his yard light, drawing his sheds and barn

back into the little system of his care.

All night, the cities, like shimmering novas,

tug with bright streets at lonely lights like

his.

29. Which of the following lines is an example of simile?

A. Above us, stars. Beneath us, constellations

B. A galaxy dies like a snowflake falling on water.

C. Feeling the chill of that distant death.

D. Back into the little system of his care.

30. What is a constellation?

A. a group of galaxies        B. a group of stars C. a group of snowflakes

D. a group of lights

31. What approach is used in the text?

A. scientific   B. academic  C. literary      D. journalistic

For item 32 – 36: Study the pie chart below and answer the questions.

(Note Image from http://www.advsofteng.com/doc/cdnetdoc/threedpie.htm)

32. How many percent of the project cost goes to licenses?

A. 5.69%  B. 12.59%  C. 10.49%  D. 17.48%

33.  Which cost has the biggest percentage?

A. production  B. facilities   C. labor  D. insurance

34. Which cost is greater than legal fees but less than licenses?

A. insurance   B. taxes   C. labor  D. facilities

35. If arranged from highest to lowest, what percentage is the third highest?

A. 20.98%  B. 12.59%  C. 17.48%  D. 10.49%

36. Which of the following is FALSE based on the graph?

A. The total of all the percentages is 100%.

B. The production cost has the highest percentage because the salaries of employees are high.

C. Combined, the cost of insurance and legal is more than the cost of license.

D. The cost for licenses is the modal cost.

For item 37 – 39:   Study the histogram above and answer the questions below.

37. More than 50 persons answered M&M as their favorite candy. What age group do they belong?

A. 11-15   B. 21-15   C. 16-20  D. None

38. Which age group has the least response?

A. 0-5    B. 6-10    C. 26-30    D. 16-20

39. Based on the histogram, which is not true in the following?

A. Age group 0-5 did not like M&M so much.

B. It shows the number of people whose favorite candy is M&M.

C. Less than 40 persons prefer M&M over other candies.

D. More than 25 persons in the 6-10 age answered M&M as their favorite candy.

For item 40 - 44  : Read the announcement below and answer the questions.

Student Volunteers Needed!

On Saturday, December 12th, from 10 A.M. until 4 P.M., Carverton Middle School will be holding a music festival in the school gymnasium. The special event will feature a variety of professional musicians and singers.

Task	Time	Date
Make posters	1 P.M.–4 P.M.	December 5th
Set up gym	11 A.M.–4 P.M.	December 11th
Help performers	9 A.M.–4 P.M.	December 12th
Welcome guests	10 A.M.–2 P.M.	December 12th
Clean up gym	4 P.M.–7 P.M.	December 12th

Interested students should speak with Ms. Braxton, the music teacher. Students who would like to help at the festival must have written permission from a parent or guardian.

40. What time will the festival begin?

A. 10 A.M.       B. 11 A.M.  C. 1 P.M.     D. 2 P.M.    

41. In line 3, the word feature is closest in meaning to _______.

A. look   B. keep        C. include   D. entertain

42. What job will be done the day before the festival begins?

A. Making posters      B. Setting up the gym

C.  Cleaning up the gym       D. Helping the performers

44. Who is told to talk to Ms. Braxton?

A. parents         B. students           C. teachers             D. performers

For item 45: Read the selection below and answer the question.

At the time Paine wrote "Common Sense," most colonists considered themselves to be aggrieved Britons. Paine fundamentally changed the tenor of colonists' argument with the crown when he wrote the following: "Europe, and not England, is the parent country of America. This new world hath been the asylum for the persecuted lovers of civil and religious liberty from every part of Europe. Hither they have fled, not from the tender embraces of the mother, but from the cruelty of the monster; and it is so far true of England, that the same tyranny which drove the first emigrants from home, pursues their descendants still."

45. The main idea of the paragraph suggests that Paine

A. influenced people to migrate from England to the colonies.

B. contributed to the colonists’ growing sense of group identity.

C. refuted the notion that most colonists emigrated from Britain.

D. had come from a country other than England.

For item 46 - 48: Read the selection below and answer the questions.

Victor Hugo, the son of one of Napoleon's officers, decided while still a teenager to become a writer. Although he studied law, he also founded a literary review to which he and other emerging writers published their work. In 1822, Hugo married his childhood sweetheart, Adele Foucher, and published his first volume of poetry, which won him a pension from Louis XVIII. In 1823, Hugo published his first novel, Han d'Islande. His 1827 play, Cromwell, embraced the tenets of Romanticism, which he laid out in the play's preface. The following year, despite a contract to begin work on a novel called Notre Dame de Paris, he set to work on two plays. The first, Marion de Lorme (1829), was censored for its candid portrayal of a courtesan. The second, Hernani, became the subject for a bitter and protracted debate between French Classicists and Romantics.

          In 1831, he finally finished Notre Dame de Paris. In addition to promoting a Romantic aesthetic that would tolerate the imperfect and the grotesque, the book also had a simpler agenda: to increase appreciation of old Gothic structures, which had become the object of vandalism and neglect. Hugo's writing spanned more than six decades, and he was given a national funeral and buried in the Pantheon after his death in 1885.

46. Why did Victor Hugo write Notre Dame de Paris?

A. To pay his extensive debts.

B. To fund his playwriting career.

C. To reject the tenets of Romanticism.

D. To spark interest in architectural preservation.

47. On line 8, the word "tenets" means_____

A. problems           B. principles                    C. advantages        D. examples

48. What approach is used in the text?

A. historical           B. journalistic        C. literary     D. academic

For item 49 - 50: Read the selection below and answer the questions.

A new study suggests that thick crustal plugs and weakened mineral grains may explain a range of relatively speedy moves among tectonic plates around the world, from Hawaii to East Timor. Traditionally, scientists believed that all tectonic plates were pulled by subducting slabs—which resulted from the colder, top boundary layer of the Earth's rocky surface becoming heavy and sinking slowly into the deeper mantle. Yet that process does not account for sudden plate shifts. Such abrupt movement requires that slabs detach from their plates, but doing this quickly is difficult since the slabs should be too cold and stiff to detach.

According to the study, there are additional factors at work. Thick crust from continents or oceanic plateau is swept into the subduction zone, plugging it up and prompting the slab to break off. The detachment process is then accelerated when mineral grains in the necking slab start to shrink, causing the slab to weaken rapidly. The result is tectonic plates that abruptly shift horizontally, or continents suddenly bobbing up.

49. The passage is primarily about

A. the results from new research.

B. the weaknesses of mineral grains.

C. how crust is subducted on the earth’s surface.

D. the types of tectonic plates.

50. What approach is used in the text?

A. historical           B. journalistic        C. literary     D. scientific

-o0o –

Good Luck!

REVIEWER - ENGLISH - ELEMENTARY

Learning Strand 1 – Communication Skills – ENGLISH - ELEMENTARY

1. Melba and I ______ breakfast every day.

A. eats          B. eat           C. does eat             D. ate

2. Juan _____ know much about karate.

A. do not       B. has not     C. does not            D. have not

3. ______ she know how to read?

A. Does        B. Has          C. Do                      D. Is

4. We always ________ mass on Sunday.

A. attend      B. attending  C. attends               D. have attend

5. My dog Snowy ______ me smile.

A. make        B. makes      C. has make           D. have make

6. The airplane landed _______ on the runway.

A. shyly        B. carefully    C. safely                D. warmly

7. I was scared whenever the taxi driver droved ______.

A. slowly       B. gently       C. recklessly                    D. repeatedly

8. John waited ______ for his friend to arrive.

A. closely      B. patiently  C. hurriedly             D. kindly

9. Anna made this stick house _______.

A. herself     B. itself         C. himself               D. myself

10. Raul and I will paint the whole gate _______.

A. themselves         B. yourselves          C. ourselves           D. myself

11. The wound healed ______ quickly.

A. herself                B. myself                C. himself               D. itself

12. Each of the students ____ responsible for doing his or her assignment in the library.

A. is                       B. are                     C. have                   D. has

13. My pair of glasses ____ black.

A. are           B. is             C. has          D. have

14. Everybody _____ welcome to attend my birthday party on Saturday.

A. was          B. were         C. is             D. are

15. My little sister dances ________.

A. the most gracefully        B. more gracefully   C. gracefully                    D. graceful

16. No doubt, John is the ___________ of them all.

A. most intelligent  B. most intelligently           C. more intelligently D. intelligently

17. The coconut tree is ________ than the banana tree.

A. smaller     B. prettier     C. taller        D. slower

18. The food here gets ______ every time I come.

A. worser      B. good         C. worst                  D. worse

19. I have _____ time than usual.

A. little          B. many        C. less         D. good

20. Father thinks the room looks ______ if we paint it yellow.

A. well          B. very good           C. better      D. more better

21. Which sentence is correct?

A. The three tiny brown mice ate my pillow case.

B. The brown tiny three mice ate my pillow case.

C. The three brown tiny mice ate my pillow case.

D. The tiny three brown mice ate my pillow case.

22. It was a/an _____________ coin.

A. ancient, gold, Mexican

B. Mexican, ancient, gold

C. ancient, Mexican, gold

D. gold, ancient, Mexican

23. The fans are eagerly waiting for their idol to walk ______ that door.

A. into           B.  by           C. through             D. on

24. Don’t leave your food uncover ____ the table.

A. on            B. besides     D. in             D. over

25. The boy scouts are afraid to go farther __________.

A. through the mountain    B. by the river         C. in the hills D. into the woods

26. Mr. Castro felt tired whenever he walked _________.

A. through the street         B. by the street       D. at the street        D. down the street

For item 27: Read the following statements and answer the question.

 Making Homemade Soap

I.  Pour the mixture in the mold and check your soap after one day.

II. In the pint jar, add the coconut, olive and olive oils and heat in the microwave.

III. In the mixing bowl, add the herbs, essential oils and other ingredients.

IV. When both the lye and the oils are at the right temperature, pour the oils into the mixing bowl.

27. What is the correct sequence in making homemade soap?

A. III, IV, I, & II        B. II, I, IV, & III        C. II, IV, III & I         D. III, II, IV & I

For item 28 – 30: Read the selections and answer the question. (Source: https://www.helpteaching.com)

Every morning when I get up I eat breakfast, brush my teeth, comb my hair, get dressed and make my bed. After that, it is my job to feed the dog in the morning. Then, I can read or play until it is time to walk to school.

28. The main topic of this passage is:

A. What time I eat breakfast

B. How my brother helps me get ready for school

C. My morning activities

D. Riding the bus to school

Every night the moon looks a little different. This is because as the moon moves around the earth, sunlight shines on different parts of the moon. The part of the moon that the sunlight is shining on is the part of the moon we see. The moon goes through four main stages. The first quarter moon, full moon, third quarter moon, and new moon are the four stages. It takes about 29 days for the moon to finish all the stages. If it is a clear night, look in the sky. You will find the moon in one of its stages.

29. This passage is mainly about

A. why the moon looks different every night.

B. why the earth moves around the sun.

C. how the sun can be seen in the evening.

D. how the moon is different from the sun.

Today was the last day of school before summer vacation. The students of Mr. Dela Cruz were very excited. Mr. Dela Cruz was trying to teach how to divide fractions but the students were kept on drawing on their papers and talking to each other. He gave a warning but nobody listened. Eventually, the students’ recess time was cut in half.

30. What is the reason why the recess time of the students is less than usual?

A. They preferred to stay inside their room to chat.

B. It was raining outside.

C. They were not paying attention to Mr. Dela Cruz’s teaching.

D. It was the last day of school.

For item 31 - 33: Read the selection below and answer the questions.

          (1) Juan loves his dog Brownie very much. (2) He feeds him on time every day. (3) When Brownie gets dirty, Juan bathes him with soap and water. (4) He also brings him to the park to run and play with him. (5) Juan thinks that Brownie is the best dog in the world.

31. Which statement/s is/are the main idea of the selection?

A. 1              B. 2 & 3                  C.  1 & 5                 D. 5

32. What is/are the supporting detail/s of the selection?

A. 2 & 3        B. 1 & 5                  C. 2, 3, & 4             D. 5

33. What statement is an opinion?

A. 1              B, 2                        C. 5                        D. 2   

For item 34 – 38: Read the selection below and answer the questions.

The sun was top on Melba’s head when she arrived home from school. She has just begun checking quizzes when she heard repeated siren. She went outside and saw billowing smoke coming from a house in a distant.

34. What time of the day it is?

A. early morning      B. noon        C. late afternoon     D. evening

35. What is the profession of Melba?

A. mother               B. teacher    C. student               D. checker

36. From where the siren is coming from?

A. ambulance          B. fire truck C. police car            D. did not mention

37. What was happening outside?

A. There is a tornado.        B. There is a typhoon.      

C. There is a fire.             D. There is an accident.

38. What will Melba probably do?

A. She will return inside their house and continue checking the quizzes.

B. She will inform her family about what is happening, gather important documents, and prepare to move out when needed.

C. She will stay outside and watch what was happening.

D. She will go near the troubled house to get a closer look.

For item 39 – 40: Read the poem below and answer the questions.

TO JOSEPHINE

Jose Rizal

Josephine, Josephine

Who to these shores have come

Looking for a nest, a home,

Like a wandering swallow;

If your fate is taking you

To Japan, China or Shanghai,

Don't forget that on these shores

A heart for you beats so high

39. Who do you think is Josephine?

A. mother             B. sister                 C. girlfriend        D. name of a ship

40. Whose heart is beating so high?

A. the swallow’s            B. the author’s     C. Josephine’s      D. the captain’s