Learning Strand 1 – Communication Skills -
ENGLISH
1. I will go
to the concert, but ________ you go as well.
A. ONLY IF B. unless C. only but D. as long
as
2. I brought
along a sandwich, ________ I get hungry.
A. therefore B.
IN CASE C. only if D. because
3. ________
she calls me, I feel very happy.
A. Therefore B. So that C. WHENEVER D.
Wherever
4. Take this
photo, ________ you can remember me.
A. while B.
SO THAT C. although D. as long as
5. Myrna
will not talk to him ________ he apologizes for what he did.
A.
UNTIL B. because C. while D. only if
6. Luisa
will find her dog, ________ it is.
A. where B.
whenever C. therefore D. WHEREVER
7. The
principal spoke ________ she knew what she was talking about, but she didn't.
A. until B.
although C. AS IF D. and
8. ________
my parents arrived, we had to end the party.
A. As long as B.
ONCE C. Although D. Because
9. Watering
and feeding new plants is necessary for growth, ______ too much water or
fertilizer can kill them.
A. BUT B. however
C. and D. because
10. If my
husband _____here, he will surely help you.
A. is B. was C. WERE D. will be
11. The
teacher together with the students ______ time to relax.
A. NEEDS B. need C.
needed D. have needed
12. His bed
and breakfast business _____ flourishing.
A. were B. IS C.
have D. had
13. The time
is running out. Everybody should act ______.
A. quicker B.
more quick C. QUICKLY D. quickest.
14. Between
you and me, I think Pamela danced __________ than Joanna.
A. gracefully B. more graceful C. the most graceful D.
MORE GRACEFULLY
15. Hector
and I will paint the whole table ________.
A.
themselves B. myself C.
OURSELVES D. himself
16. I made
this toy. It belongs to ____.
A. myself B. ME C. itself D.
mine
17. Marissa
likes to read; _________, her sister Marife prefers to watch TV.
A. however B. because C. IN CONTRAST D. again
18. Anthony
has an incredible voice; _________, he will go far in her music career. A. A. otherwise B. UNDOUBTEDLY C. similarly D. however
19. As the
famous saying goes, there’s no use ______ over spilt milk.
A. to cry B. cried C. CRYING D. trying
20. In the
old days, gentlemen challenged their rivals _______.
A. TO FIGHT B. fighting C. to fought D. fight
For item 21
– 23: Read the selection and answer the question.
The habitat for the
American alligator has steadily declined every year in the past decade.
It is important for pet
owners in the Florida swamps to keep their animals inside in the evening in
order to keep them protected.
21. What does the second sentence do?
A. It gives an example.
B. It states an effect.
C. It makes a contrast.
D. It restates the idea found in the first.
The
amount of time a person sits during the day is associated with a higher risk of
heart disease, diabetes, cancer, and death, regardless of regular exercise,
according to a recent study. More than one half of an average person's day is
spent being sedentary—sitting, watching television, or working at a computer.
Avoiding sedentary time and getting regular exercise are both important for
improving your health and survival.
22. Which of
the following is implied by the passage?
A. Regular
exercise will help counteract the negative effects of being sedentary.
B. Physical
activity alone may not be enough to reduce the risk for disease.
C. Sitting
still causes some types of heart disease and cancer.
D. Watching
television while on a treadmill is considered sedentary time.
Sea turtles migrate
across thousands of miles of ocean before returning to nest on the same stretch
of coastline where they hatched, but how they do this has mystified scientists
for more than fifty years. Sea turtles likely go to great lengths to find the
places where they began life because successful nesting requires a combination
of environmental features that are rare: soft sand, the right temperature, few
predators, and an easily accessible beach.
23. From this passage it is safe to conclude that sea turtles
A. are not easily observed by scientists.
B. cannot lay their eggs on any beach other than the one on
which they hatched.
C. will not lay their eggs on beaches with pebbly sand.
D. must have the ability to precisely detect
their location
For Item 24 – 26: Read the paragraph below and answer the
questions.
The long reign of
Elizabeth, who became known as the "Virgin Queen" for her reluctance
to endanger her authority through marriage, coincided with the flowering of the
English Renaissance, associated with such renowned authors as William
Shakespeare. By her death in 1603, England had become a major world power in
every respect, and Queen Elizabeth I passed into history as one of England's
greatest monarchs.
24. The writer believes Queen Elizabeth I did not marry because
A. she did not want to diminish her power.
B. she did not fall in love.
C. there were no suitable matches.
D. she was preoccupied with the English Renaissance.
25. The word “reluctance”
can be replaced by ________.
A. acceptance B.
denial C. unwillingness D. eagerness
26. Renowned
artists are not said to be _______.
A. popular B.
distinguished C. acclaimed D. common
The selection below pertains to Item 27 – 28.
NASA's Kepler Space
Telescope has discovered a star with three planets only slightly larger than
Earth. Its outermost planet orbits in the 'Goldilocks' zone—a region where
surface temperatures could be moderate enough for liquid water, and perhaps
life, to exist. The star ranks among the top 10 nearest stars known to have
transiting planets.
27. The purpose of the passage is to
A. explore the possibility of life in outer space.
B. fundraise for further research.
C. announce the discovery of a new planet.
D. describe the conditions required for the ‘Goldilocks’ zone.
28. The tone of the selection is _______.
A. investigative B.
informative C. comparative D. descriptive
For item 29
– 31: Read the poem below and answer the questions.
Flying at
Night
Ted Kooser,
1939
Above us, stars. Beneath us,
constellations.
Five billion miles away, a galaxy dies
like a snowflake falling on water. Below
us,
some farmer, feeling the chill of that
distant death,
snaps on his yard light, drawing his
sheds and barn
back into the little system of his care.
All night, the cities, like shimmering
novas,
tug with bright streets at lonely lights
like
his.
29. Which of
the following lines is an example of simile?
A. Above us,
stars. Beneath us, constellations
B. A
galaxy dies like a snowflake falling on water.
C. Feeling
the chill of that distant death.
D. Back into
the little system of his care.
30. What is
a constellation?
A. a group
of galaxies B. a group of stars C. a group of snowflakes
D. a group
of lights
31. What approach
is used in the text?
A.
scientific B. academic C. literary D.
journalistic
For item 32
– 36: Study the pie chart below and answer the questions.
32. How many
percent of the project cost goes to licenses?
A. 5.69% B.
12.59% C. 10.49% D. 17.48%
33. Which cost has the biggest percentage?
A. production B. facilities C. labor
D. insurance
34. Which
cost is greater than legal fees but less than licenses?
A.
insurance B. taxes C. labor D. facilities
35. If
arranged from highest to lowest, what percentage is the third highest?
A.
20.98% B. 12.59% C.
17.48% D. 10.49%
36. Which of
the following is FALSE based on the graph?
A. The total
of all the percentages is 100%.
B. The production cost has the highest
percentage because the salaries of employees are high.
C. Combined,
the cost of insurance and legal is more than the cost of license.
D. The cost
for licenses is the modal cost.
For item 37 – 39: Study
the histogram above and answer the questions below.
37. More than 50 persons answered M&M as their favorite
candy. What age group do they belong?
A. 11-15 B. 21-15 C.
16-20 D. None
38. Which age group has the least response?
A. 0-5 B. 6-10
C. 26-30 D. 16-20
39. Based on the histogram, which is not true in the following?
A. Age group 0-5 did not like M&M so much.
B. It shows the number of people whose favorite candy is
M&M.
C. Less than 40 persons prefer M&M over other candies.
D. More than 25 persons in the 6-10 age answered M&M as
their favorite candy.
For item 40 - 44 : Read
the announcement below and answer the questions.
Student
Volunteers Needed!
On Saturday, December 12th, from 10 A.M. until 4 P.M., Carverton
Middle School will be holding a music festival in the school gymnasium. The
special event will feature a
variety of professional musicians and singers.
Task
|
Time
|
Date
|
Make posters
|
1 P.M.–4 P.M.
|
December 5th
|
Set up gym
|
11 A.M.–4 P.M.
|
December 11th
|
Help performers
|
9 A.M.–4 P.M.
|
December 12th
|
Welcome guests
|
10 A.M.–2 P.M.
|
December 12th
|
Clean up gym
|
4 P.M.–7 P.M.
|
December 12th
|
Interested students should speak with Ms. Braxton, the music teacher.
Students who would like to help at the festival must have written permission
from a parent or guardian.
40. What
time will the festival begin?
A. 10
A.M. B. 11 A.M. C. 1 P.M. D.
2 P.M.
41. In line 3, the
word feature is closest in meaning to _______.
A. look B. keep C.
include D. entertain
42. What job will be done the day before the festival begins?
A. Making posters B.
Setting up the gym
C. Cleaning up the gym D. Helping
the performers
44. Who is told to talk to Ms. Braxton?
A. parents B. students C. teachers D. performers
For item 45: Read the selection below and answer the question.
At the
time Paine wrote "Common Sense," most colonists considered themselves
to be aggrieved Britons. Paine fundamentally changed the tenor of colonists'
argument with the crown when he wrote the following: "Europe, and not
England, is the parent country of America. This new world hath been the asylum
for the persecuted lovers of civil and religious liberty from every part of
Europe. Hither they have fled, not from the tender embraces of the mother, but
from the cruelty of the monster; and it is so far true of England, that the
same tyranny which drove the first emigrants from home, pursues their
descendants still."
45. The main idea of the paragraph suggests that Paine
A. influenced people to migrate from England to the colonies.
B. contributed to the colonists’ growing sense
of group identity.
C. refuted the notion that most colonists emigrated from
Britain.
D. had come from a country other than England.
For item 46 - 48: Read the selection below and answer the
questions.
Victor
Hugo, the son of one of Napoleon's officers, decided while still a teenager to
become a writer. Although he studied law, he also founded a literary review to
which he and other emerging writers published their work. In 1822, Hugo married
his childhood sweetheart, Adele Foucher, and published his first volume of
poetry, which won him a pension from Louis XVIII. In 1823, Hugo published his
first novel, Han d'Islande. His 1827 play, Cromwell, embraced the tenets of
Romanticism, which he laid out in the play's preface. The following year,
despite a contract to begin work on a novel called Notre Dame de Paris, he set
to work on two plays. The first, Marion de Lorme (1829), was censored for its
candid portrayal of a courtesan. The second, Hernani, became the subject for a
bitter and protracted debate between French Classicists and Romantics.
In 1831, he finally
finished Notre Dame de Paris. In addition to promoting a Romantic aesthetic
that would tolerate the imperfect and the grotesque, the book also had a simpler
agenda: to increase appreciation of old Gothic structures, which had become the
object of vandalism and neglect. Hugo's writing spanned more than six decades,
and he was given a national funeral and buried in the Pantheon after his death
in 1885.
46. Why did Victor Hugo write Notre Dame de Paris?
A. To pay his extensive debts.
B. To fund his playwriting career.
C. To reject the tenets of Romanticism.
D. To spark interest in architectural
preservation.
47. On line 8, the word "tenets" means_____
A. problems B. principles C.
advantages D. examples
48. What approach is used in the text?
A. historical B. journalistic C. literary D.
academic
For item 49 - 50: Read the selection below and answer the
questions.
A new
study suggests that thick crustal plugs and weakened mineral grains may explain
a range of relatively speedy moves among tectonic plates around the world, from
Hawaii to East Timor. Traditionally, scientists believed that all tectonic
plates were pulled by subducting slabs—which resulted from the colder, top
boundary layer of the Earth's rocky surface becoming heavy and sinking slowly
into the deeper mantle. Yet that process does not account for sudden plate
shifts. Such abrupt movement requires that slabs detach from their plates, but
doing this quickly is difficult since the slabs should be too cold and stiff to
detach.
According
to the study, there are additional factors at work. Thick crust from continents
or oceanic plateau is swept into the subduction zone, plugging it up and
prompting the slab to break off. The detachment process is then accelerated
when mineral grains in the necking slab start to shrink, causing the slab to
weaken rapidly. The result is tectonic plates that abruptly shift horizontally,
or continents suddenly bobbing up.
49. The passage is primarily about
A. the
results from new research.
B. the weaknesses of mineral grains.
C. how crust is subducted on the earth’s surface.
D. the types of tectonic plates.
50. What approach is used in the text?
A. historical B.
journalistic C. literary D.
scientific
-o0o –
Good Luck!
